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## PHY 2 SSIII MOCK questions

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MOCK EXAMINATION, 2010/2011 SESSION.
SUBJECT: PHYSICS 2
CLASS:SSS 3  	         	         TIME ALLOWED: 2˝HRS

SECTION A
1. 	Which of the following observations is NOT an effect of surface tension?
A. Droplets of water dripping slowly from a tap
B. Mercury spilled on a clean glass plate forms small spherical droplets
C. An insect walking across the surface of a pond
D. Water flowing out more easily than engine oil from a container
2. 	Which of the following physical quantities is correctly paired with its corresponding S.I unit?
A. Density [ kg m3]    B. Power [ J /s ]     C. Specific latent heat [ J/kg/K ]   D. Pressure [ N/m]
3. 	A liquid of volume 2.00m3 and destiny 1.00 x 103 kg/m3 is mixed with 3.00m3 of another
liquid of destiny 8.00 x 103 kg/m3. Calculate the destiny of the mixture. [Assume there is no
chemical reaction ]
A. 5.20 x 102 kg/m3   B. 8.80 x 102 kg/m3   C. 1.13 x 103 kg/m3     D. 5.20 x 103 kg/m3
4. 	Which of the following statements about solid friction are correct? It
I.  is a force.
II. occurs between the surfaces of two bodies in contact.
III. depends on the area of contact.
A. I and II only        B. I and III only       C. II and III only       D.  I, II and III
5. 	A man of mass m, experiences a viscous drag, F and an upthrust, U as he descends towards the
ground at a steady velocity, using a parachute. If the acceleration of free fall is g, which of the
following expressions is correct?
A. FU = mg       B. U + F – mg = 0     C. U – F = mg       D. F – U – mg = 0
6. 	A body moving at a constant speed accelerates when it is in
A. rectilinear motion    B. translational motion   C. circular motion      D. vibrational motion
7. 	An object of mass 2kg moves with a uniform speed of 10m/s for 5s along a straight path .
Determine the magnitude of its acceleration.
A. 0 m/s           B. 1 m/s                     C. 3 m/s                      D. 4m/s
8. 	The term rectilinear acceleration means the rate of
A. velocity along a circular path in a time  B. distance along a path in a unit time.
C. displacement along a straight-line path in a unit time. D. velocity along a straight-line in a unit time.
9. 	A vehicle moving with a uniform speed is gradually brought to rest. Which of the following sketches
describes the motion of the vehicle?
A.                        B.                              C.                                   D.
V                              V                              V                                       V

T                                 T                                T                                           T
10. 	A body moving with an initial velocity u accelerates until it attains a velocity of v within a time t.
The distance, s covered by the body is given by the expression.
A. s = ( v – u )t       B. s = ( v + 2u )t         C. s = ( v + u )t            D. s = ( 2v + u )t
2                             2                                 2                                     2

11. 	A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 2 m/s2. Calculate the magnitude of its velocity after
traveling 9m.
A. 4.5 m/s                      B. 6.0 m/s                  C. 18.0 m/s                  D. 36.0 m/s

12.                                                10N

300  o                                F

P

The diagram above illustrates three forces acting on an object at point o. If the object is in equilibrium,
Determine the magnitude of the force P.
A. 10.5N                 B. 11.0N                    C. 17.3N                            D.20.0N
13. 	A swinging pendulum between the rest position and its maximum displacement possesses
A. kinetic energy only  B. potential energy only  C. gravitational energy only  D. both kinetic and
Potential energy.
14. A block of mass 4.0kg causes a spiral spring to extend by 0.16m from its unstretched position. The
block is removed and another body of mass 0.50kg is hung from the same spiral spring. If the spring
is then stretched and released, what is the angular frequency of the subsequent motion? { g = 10m/s2}
15. An external force of magnitude 100 N acts on a particle of mass 0.15 kg for 0.03 s. Calculate the
change in the speed of the particle.
A. 50 m/s                        B. 25 m/s                       C. 20 m/s                           D. 5m/s
16. A car of mass 800kg moves from rest on a horizontal track and travels 60m in 20s with uniform
acceleration. Assuming there were no frictional forces, calculate the accelerating force.
A. 240.00 N                 B. 800.00 N            C. 1600.00 N                   D. 2400.00N
17. A plane inclined at 300 to the horizontal has an efficiency of 50%. Calculate the force parallel to the
plane required to push a load of 120 N uniformly up the plane.
A. 50.0 N                B. 120.0 N               200.0 N                           D. 240.0 N
18. Mechanical energy can be either
A. kinetic or electric.     B. chemical or potential     C. potential or kinetic          D electric or heat
19. The ice and steam points on a mercury-in-glass thermometer are 10 cm and 30 cm respectively.
Calculate the temperature in degree Celsius, when the mercury meniscus is at the 14 cm mark.
A. 20oc                 B. 300c                    C. 340c                     D. 700c
20. Which of the following surface will radiate heat energy best?
A. Red surface       B. White surface          C. Black surface                D. Yellow surface
21. Which of the following statements distinguishes thermal conduction from convection?
I.  Conduction requires a material medium while convection does not.
II.  In convection, there is actual motion of hot material, while in conduction, molecules vibrate
III.  Conduction takes place in solids while convection takes place in fluids.
A. I and II only           B. II and III only         C. I and III only                D. I, II and III
22. A cube made of a metal of linear expansivity a is heated through a temperature ?. If the initial
volume of the is Vo, the correct expression for the increase in volume of the cube is
A. 1/3 a Vo ?         B. ˝ a Vo ?          C. 2 a Vo ?            D. 3 a Vo ?

23. A relative density bottle of volume 50cm3 is completely filled with a liquid at 300c. It is then heated
to 800c such that 0.75cm3 of the liquid is expelled. Calculate the apparent cubic expansivity of the
liquid.
A. 0.00030K-1        B. 0.00032 K-1                 C. 0.01970 K-1                  D. 0.02030 K-1
24. A body of mass 200g and specific heat capacity 0.4J/g/K cools from 370c to 31oc.Calculate the quantity
of heat released by the body.
A. 4800J                 B. 1200J                         C. 480J                          D. 202J
25. At standard atmospheric pressure, a solution of common salt is heated gradually until most of it boils
away. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the temperature (?) versus time (t) graph
for this process?
A                                  B.                                      C.                                         D.

26. According to the kinetic theory of gases, which of the following properties of a gas can be affected by
the collision of the gas molecules with the walls of its container?
A. Temperature        B. Energy               C. Viscosity                     D. Pressure
27. The pressure of a fixed mass of an ideal gas at 270c is 3 Pa. The gas is heated at a constant volume until
its pressure is 5 Pa . Determine the new temperature of the gas.
A. 1000c                     B. 2270c                       C. 2730c                        D. 5000c
28. Which of the following waves is electromagnetic?
A. X-rays                    B. Sound waves              C. Water waves                      D. Tidal waves
29. The distance between two points P and Q, along a wave is 0.05m. If the wave length of the wave is
0.10m, determine the phase angle between P and Q in radians.
A. 0.1p                          B.     p                       C. 2p                                 D. 10p
30. Which of the following phenomena is NOT a direct consequence of rectilinear propagation of light?
A. Lunar and solar eclipses     B. Images of objects in a pinhole camera               C. Diffraction of light
31. An object is placed 10cm in front of a plane mirror. If it is moved 8cm farther away from the mirror,
determine the distance of the final image from the mirror.
A. 2cm                           B. 9cm                             C. 16cm                               D. 18cm
32. In which of the following pieces of apparatus is the radius of curvature equal to twice the focal length?
A. Converging lens         B. Diverging lens               C. Converging mirror    D. Parabolic mirror
33. When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of  a concave mirror, its image is formed at
A. the focus.        B. infinity         C. the centre of curvature.     D. a distance twice the radius of curvature
34. A rectangular glass prism of thickness d and absolute refractive index n is placed on a point object,
which is viewed vertically downward from above the prism. Which of the following expressions
correctly defines the apparent upward displacement of the object?
A. d/n                B. dn                      C. d                           D. d(n – 1)
n – 2                                 n
35. Which of the following factors can affect the speed of sound in air?
I.  The temperature of the surrounding
II.  The direction of wind
III.  The pitch of the sound
A. I and II only              B. II and III only                C. I and III only            D. I, II and III

36. A sounding tuning fork is brought near the open end of a pipe containing air and the loudness of
the sound is observed to increase. This observation is due to
A. an echo.                       B. resonance                    C. interference                D. reverberation.
37. Which of the following statements about sound waves is NOT correct? Sound waves can be
A. reflected.                B. refracted.                     C. diffracted                     D. polarized.
38. Which of the following statements is correct about resonance? Resonance occurs when a body
A. vibrates with its natural frequency.        B. is forced to vibrate at its own natural frequency by another
body vibrating at the same frequency.    C. vibrates at the frequency of the body causing the vibration.
D. vibrates with an irregular frequency.
39. A dry plastic comb used in combing hair was found to attract pieces of paper and dust. The most
probable explanation for this phenomenon is that the comb has been given
A. magnetization by induction.    B. electric charges by induction.   C. electric charges by conduction.
D. electric charges by friction.
40. Which of the following components is used for storing electric charges?
A. Inductor                     B. Resistor                      C. Capacitor                    D. Electrometer
41. Which of the following operations does NOT represent an action of a force field?
A. Falling of a mango fruit from the tree   B. Picking of nails using a bar magnet
C. Repulsion of two like charges          D. Pushing of a wheel-barrow on a level ground
42.

2O

3 O
P                                                                                                             Q

2 O
Calculate the effective resistance between P and Q in the diagram shown above.
A. 0.75 O                      B. 4.00 O                     C. 5.00 O                         D. 7.00 O
43. A bulb marked 240V , 40W is used for 30 minutes. Calculate the heat generated.
A. 320J                    B. 400J                        C. 10800J                       D. 72000J
44. Five 80-W and three 100-W lamps are run for 8 hours. If the cost of energy is N5.00 per unit,
calculate the cost of running the lamps.       [ 1 unit = 1kWh ]
A. N280.00              B. N28.00                     C. N7.20                      D. N1.44
45. Which of the following electromagnetic waves can be detected by its heating  effect?
46. If a gas is exited by high voltage to produce a discharge and the light is examined in a spectrometer;
A. an explosion is observed.     B. the rainbow colours are seen.  C. an emission spectrum is observed
D. dark lines are observed.
47. The number of protons in an element increased by one after a radioactive decay. The element must
have decayed by emitting
A. a beta particle.        B. an alpha particle.                C. a gamma ray.               D. a neutron.
48. The correct sequence of energy transformations in the operation of an X-ray tube is
I.  X-rays
II. Kinetic energy of thermo electrons
III. Potential energy of the target atoms
IV. Heat energy of the emitted electrons
A. IV,III,II,I                 B. IV,II,III,I                  C. II,IV,III,I                  D.III,IV,II,I
49. In a nuclear reactor, chain reactions result from the release of
A. electrons.                  B. photons.                  C. neutrons                      D. protons

50. There is always an uncertainty involved in attempt to measure the position and momentum of an
electron simultaneously. This statement is known as the
A. de Broglie’s law            B. Heisenberg uncertainty principle.       C. Franck-Hertz experiment

SECTION B
ESSAY
(60 Marks )
Five questions from Part I and three questions from Part II
All questions carry equal marks.
PART I
(Answer any five questions from this part

1. A particle is projected at an angle of 300 to the horizontal with a speed of 250m/s. Calculate the
(a) total time of flight of the particle;
(b) speed of the particle at its maximum height.			[g = 10m/s2
2. A stone projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a speed of 4m/s lands on the level
ground at a horizontal distance 25m from the foot of the tower. Calculate the height of the tower.	[g = 10m/s2]
3. State
(a) the difference between plane polarized light and ordinary light;
(b) two uses of polaroids.
4. Define
(a) electrolysis;		(b) electrolyte;			 (c ) electrode.
5. Copper of thickness d is plated on the cathode of a copper voltameter. If the total surface area of
the cathode is 60cm2 and a steady current of 5.0 A is maintained in the voltameter for 1 hour,
calculate the value of d.
[ density of copper = 8.9 x 103 kg/m3,  electro chemical equivalent of copper = 3.3 x 10-7 kg /C ]
6. (a) Explain thermionic emission.
(b) State two applications of electrical conduction through gases.
7. Define
(a) tensile stress;			(b) tensile strain;		(c ) yield point.
8. A wire of length 5.0m and diameter 2.0mm extends by 0.25mm when a force of 50N was used
to stretch it from its end. Calculate the
(a) stress on the wire;				 (b) strain in the wire.			 [p = 3.142]
9. (a) List two factors that can affect the rate of diffusion.
(b) State two examples to illustrate the effects of surface tension.
10. State two effects to show
(a) the existence of matter waves;			(b) that radiation behaves like particles.

PART II
Answer any three questions from this part

11. (a) State the conditions of equilibrium for a number of coplanar parallel forces.   [ 2marks]
(b) A meter rule is found to balance horizontally at the 48cm mark. When a body of mass 60g is
suspended at the 6 cm mark, the balance point is found to be at the 30cm mark. Calculate the
(i) mass of the meter rule;
(ii) distance of the balance point from the zero end , if the body were moved to the 13cm mark. [6 marks]

(c ) A man pulls a box of mass 70kg using an inclined plane of effective length 5m unto a platform
2.5m high at a uniform speed. If the frictional force between the box and the plane is 1000N.
(i ) draw a diagram to illustrate all the forces acting on the box while in motion;
(ii) calculate the
I. minimum effort applied in pulling up the box;
II. velocity ratio of the plane if it is inclined at 300 to the horizontal;
III. force ratio of the plane.                                                                             [ 7 marks ]

12. (a) Define the boiling point of a liquid.                                                                      [ 2 marks ]
(b) With the aid of a sketch diagram, describe an experiment to determine the boiling
point of a small quantity of a liquid.                                                                     [ 8 marks ]
(c ) A piece of copper of mass 300g at a temperature of 9500c is quickly transferred into
a vessel of negligible thermal capacity containing 250g of water at 250c. If the final steady
temperature of the mixture is 1000c, calculate the mass of water that will boil away.
[ specific heat capacity of copper = 4.0 x 102 J/kg/K]
[   specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 x 103 J/kg/K]
[ specific latent heat of vaporization of steam = 2.26 x 106 J/kg ]               [5 marks]

13. (a) (i) What is wave motion?                                                                                         [ 2 marks ]
(ii) State two differences between a radio wave and a sound wave.                        [ 2 marks ]
(b) (i) Given that you are provided with a tuning fork, a burette and other necessary
apparatus, describe with the aid of a diagram, an experiment to determine the
frequency of a note emitted by a source of sound.
[ assume the velocity of sound in air is known ]                                            [ 6 marks ]
(ii) State two precautions necessary to obtain accurate result in the
experiment described in 13(b)(i) above.                                                              [ 2 marks ]
(c) A pipe closed at one end is 100cm long. If the air in pipe is set into vibration and
a fundamental note is produced, calculate the frequency of the note.
[Velocity of sound in air = 340m/s ]                                                           [3 marks]

14. (a) With the aid of a diagram, explain how a step down transformer works.                 [7 marks]
(b) (i) State three ways by which energy is lost in a transformer.
(ii) Mention how each of the losses in (b) (i) above can be minimized.                     [3 marks]
(c ) A 95% efficiency transformer is used to operate a lamp rated 60W, 220V from
a 4400V a.c. supply. Calculate the
(i) ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to the number of turns in the
secondary coil of the transformer;
(ii) Current taken from the mains circuit.  [5 marks]

15. (a)  (i) With the aid of diagram, describe the mode of operation of a modern X- ray tube.    [8 marks]
(ii) State the energy transformations that take place during the operation of the X- ray tube. [2 mks]
(b) Define, as applied to X-rays, the following terms:
(i) Hardness;			 (ii) Intensity.    [2 marks]
(c) State
(i) four uses of X-rays;
(ii) one hazard of over exposure to X- rays in a radiological laboratory.                            [2 marks]

```

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